The Ultimate Aviation Glossary & Definitions

Instrument flight rules = rules which allow an aircraft which is equipped with suitable navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown in accordance with the applicable requirements on air operations.

IFR = the symbol used to designate instrument flight rules.

Instrument approach operation = an approach and landing using instruments for navigation guidance based on an instrument approach procedure (IAP). There are two methods for executing instrument approach operations:

(a) a two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation guidance only.

(b) a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance.

Go-around = a transition from an approach operation to a stabilised climb. This includes manoeuvres conducted at or above the MDA/H or DA/H, or below the DA/H (balked landings).

Final approach segment (FAS) = that segment of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.

Instrument approach procedure (IAP) = a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix or, where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.

Non-precision approach (NPA) = an IAP designed for 2D instrument approach operations Type A.

Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) = a performance-based navigation (PBN) IAP designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A.

Precision approach (PA) = an IAP based on navigation systems designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B.

Type A instrument approach operation = an instrument approach operation with an MDH or a DH at or above 250 ft.

Type B instrument approach operation = an operation with a DH below 250 ft.

Category I (CAT I) = a Type B operation with a DH not lower than 200 ft and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or an RVR not less than 550 m.

Category II (CAT II) = a Type B operation with a DH lower than 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft, and an RVR not less than 300 m.

Category III (CAT III) = a Type B operation with a DH lower than 100 ft or no DH, and an RVR less than 300 m or no RVR limitation.

Circling = the visual phase of a circling approach operation.

Circling approach operation = a Type A instrument approach operation to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway or final approach and take-off area (FATO) that is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.

Visual approach = an approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.

Visual approach operation = an approach operation by an IFR flight when either a part or all parts of an IAP are not completed and the approach operation is executed with visual reference to terrain.

Aerodrome operating minima = the limits of usability of an aerodrome for:

(a) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range (RVR) and/or visibility and, if necessary, ceiling.

(b) landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, ceiling.

(c) landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR and decision altitude/height (DA/H).

Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH) = a specified altitude or height in a 3D instrument approach operation at which a missed approach procedure must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established.

Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH) = a specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach operation below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.

Continuous descent final approach (CDFA) = a technique, consistent with stabilised approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment of an NPA as a continuous descent without level-off.

 

Low-visibility operations (LVOs) = approach or take-off operations on a runway with an RVR less than 550 m or with a decision height less than 200 ft.

Low-visibility take-off (LVTO) = a take-off with an RVR less than 550 m.

Performance-based navigation (PBN) = area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.

Area navigation (RNAV) = a method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids, or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids.

Required navigation performance (RNP) specification = a navigation specification for PBN operations which includes a requirement for on-board navigation performance monitoring and alerting.

Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) = a worldwide position and time determination system that uses satellite signals.

Global positioning system (GPS) = a GNSS operated by the United States.

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) = a technique whereby a GNSS receiver determines the integrity of the navigation solution by using redundant satellite signals and fault detection algorithms, in order to detect a loss of integrity and provide a timely alert to the pilot when the navigation system cannot be relied upon for the intended phase of flight.

Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) = a wide-area augmentation system that improves GNSS accuracy, integrity and availability.

Ground-based augmentation system (GBAS) = an augmentation system in which corrections and integrity data are provided by a ground station via VHF data broadcast.

GBAS landing system (GLS) = an approach landing system using ground-based augmented GNSS information to provide lateral and vertical guidance based on geometric altitude.

ILS = instrument landing system providing lateral and vertical guidance for precision approach operations.

GLS = GBAS landing system approach using GNSS-based guidance.

LPV = localizer performance with vertical guidance, an APV approach supported by SBAS.

LNAV = lateral navigation only approach minima.

LNAV/VNAV = lateral and vertical navigation approach minima using baro-VNAV or SBAS.

VNAV = vertical navigation guidance provided by the flight management system.

SRA = surveillance radar approach providing lateral guidance by ATC.

Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) = non-binding standards adopted by the European Union Aviation Safety Agency to illustrate means to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.

Alternative Means of Compliance (AltMOC) = means that propose an alternative to an existing acceptable means of compliance or propose new means to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules for which no associated AMC has been adopted by the Agency.

Guidance material (GM) = non-binding material developed by the Agency that helps to illustrate the meaning of a requirement or specification and is used to support the interpretation of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, its Implementing Rules and AMC.

Certification specifications (CS) = technical standards adopted by the Agency indicating means to show compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules and which can be used by an organisation for the purpose of certification.

Oversight = The verification, by or on behalf of the competent authority, on a continuous basis, that the requirements of this Regulation and of the delegated and implementing acts adopted on its basis continue to be complied with.

Certification = Any form of recognition in accordance with this Regulation, based on an appropriate assessment, that a person, organisation, product, part, equipment, system or facility complies with the applicable requirements, through the issuance of a certificate attesting such compliance.

Declaration = Any written statement made under the sole responsibility of a legal or natural person, confirming compliance with the applicable requirements of this Regulation and its delegated and implementing acts.

Certificate = Any certificate, approval, licence, authorisation, attestation or other document issued as the result of a certification attesting compliance with the applicable requirements.

Qualified entity = An accredited legal or natural person which may be entrusted with certain certification or oversight tasks under this Regulation, under the control and responsibility of the Agency or a national competent authority.

Chicago Convention = The Convention on International Civil Aviation and its Annexes, signed in Chicago on 7 December 1944.

International standards and recommended practices = The standards and recommended practices adopted by ICAO in accordance with Article 37 of the Chicago Convention.

Product = An aircraft, an engine or a propeller.

Part = Any element of a product, as defined by that product’s type design.

Safety performance = The safety achievement of the Union, a Member State or an organisation, as defined by its safety performance targets and safety performance indicators.

Safety performance indicator = A parameter used for monitoring and assessing safety performance.

Safety performance target = A planned or intended objective for complying with safety performance indicators over a given period of time.

ADR = Regulatory framework governing the design, certification and operation of aerodromes.

Remote tower operations = Provision of aerodrome air traffic services using remote digital and surveillance systems instead of a physical control tower.

 

DEF = Definitions applicable to Air Operations regulations.

Part-ARO = Authority Requirements for Air Operations, defining oversight, certification and surveillance responsibilities of competent authorities.

Part-CAT = Commercial Air Transport Operations, covering requirements for commercial flights transporting passengers, cargo or mail.

Part-IAM = Initial Airworthiness and continuing operational requirements applicable to specific aircraft categories.

Part-NCC = Non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft, including corporate and business aviation.

Part-NCO = Non-commercial operations with other than complex motor-powered aircraft, including general aviation activities.

Part-ORO = Organisation Requirements for Air Operations, defining management, safety and compliance obligations for operators.

Part-SPA = Operations requiring Specific Approvals, such as ETOPS, LVO, RVSM or CAT II/III operations.

Part-SPO = Specialised Operations, including aerial work such as aerial photography, firefighting, towing or parachuting.

 

Part-ATCO = Licensing, training and qualification requirements for air traffic controllers.

Part-ATCO.AR = Authority Requirements related to air traffic controller licensing and oversight.

Part-ATCO.OR = Organisation Requirements for ATCO training and service providers.

Part-ATCO.MED = Medical requirements applicable to air traffic controllers.

Part-ATM/ANS.EQMT.AR = Authority Requirements for ATM/ANS equipment certification and oversight.

Part-ATM/ANS.EQMT.CERT = Certification requirements for ATM/ANS equipment.

Part-DPO.OR = Organisation requirements related to data processing services for ATM/ANS equipment.

Part-AIS = Aeronautical Information Services, covering the provision of aeronautical information and data.

Part-ASM = Airspace Management, regulating the allocation and use of airspace.

Part-ATFM = Air Traffic Flow Management, ensuring balanced demand and capacity in the ATM network.

Part-ATM/ANS.AR = Authority Requirements for ATM/ANS service provision.

Part-ATM/ANS.OR = Organisation Requirements for ATM/ANS service providers.

Part-ATS = Air Traffic Services, including ATC, FIS and alerting services.

Part-CNS = Communication, Navigation and Surveillance services.

Part-DAT = Data services related to aeronautical and ATM information.

Part-FPD = Flight Procedure Design services.

Part-MET = Meteorological services for air navigation.

Part-NM = Network Manager functions within the European ATM network.

Part-PERS = Personnel requirements for ATM/ANS service provision.

Remote tower operations = ATM service provision using remote digital tower systems.

Part-ARA = Authority Requirements for Aircrew licensing and oversight.

Part-CC = Cabin Crew requirements for training, qualification and duties.

Part-DTO = Declared Training Organisation requirements.

Part-FCL = Flight Crew Licensing requirements.

Part-MED = Medical Requirements for Aircrew.

Part-ORA = Organisation Requirements for Aircrew training organisations.

Part-AUR.COM = Communication requirements for airspace usage.

Part-AUR.SUR = Surveillance requirements for airspace usage.

Part-BFCL = Balloon Flight Crew Licensing requirements.

Part-BOP = Balloon Operations requirements.

Part-145 = Maintenance organisation approval requirements.

Part-147 = Requirements for organisations training Part-66 maintenance licence applicants.

Part-66 = Licensing requirements for aircraft maintenance certifying staff.

Part-CAMO = Continuing Airworthiness Management Organisation requirements.

Part-CAO = Combined Airworthiness Organisation requirements for small aircraft.

Part-M = Continuing airworthiness requirements for aircraft.

Part-ML = Simplified continuing airworthiness requirements for non-complex aircraft.

Part-T = Continuing airworthiness requirements for aircraft registered in a third country.

Part-ARGH = Authority Requirements for ground handling services.

Part-GH.OPS = Operational requirements for ground handling activities.

Part-ORGH = Organisation Requirements for ground handling service providers.

Part-IS.AR = Authority Requirements for information security.

Part-IS.D.OR = Organisation Requirements for information security under Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645.

Part-IS.I.OR = Organisation Requirements for information security under Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203.

Part 21 = Certification requirements for aircraft, engines and propellers, including environmental protection.

Part 21 Light = Simplified certification requirements for light aircraft and products.

SKPI = Safety Key Performance Indicators used within the Single European Sky performance scheme.

Part-SAO = Sailplane Operations requirements.

Part-SFCL = Sailplane Flight Crew Licensing requirements.

SERA = Standardised European Rules of the Air applicable to all aircraft operating within EU airspace.

Rules of the air = Operational rules governing aircraft conduct in flight and on the ground.

Remote tower operations = Application of SERA within remote tower environments.

Part-TCO = Requirements applicable to operators from third countries conducting commercial operations into, within or out of the EU.

U-space = Regulatory framework enabling safe integration of unmanned aircraft operations through digital services.

Rules of the air = Rules applicable to U-space operations.

Part-ATS = Air Traffic Services adapted to U-space operations.

UAS = Unmanned Aircraft Systems regulatory framework governing design, operation and oversight of drones.

Cabin crew member = an appropriately qualified crew member, other than a flight crew or technical crew member, who is assigned by an operator to perform duties related to the safety of passengers and flight during operations.

Crew member = a person assigned by an operator to perform duties on board an aircraft.

Flight crew member = a licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during a flight duty period.

Technical crew member = a crew member in commercial air transport HEMS, VEMS, HHO or NVIS operations other than a flight or cabin crew member, assigned by the operator to duties in the aircraft or on the ground for the purpose of assisting the pilot during HEMS, VEMS, HHO or NVIS operations, which may require the operation of specialised on-board equipment.

Pilot-in-command (PIC) = the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight. for the purpose of commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters, the pilot-in-command shall be termed commander.

Pilot-in-command = the pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation, the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight.

Flight operations officer’ or flight dispatcher = a person designated by the operator to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations, who is suitably qualified, who supports, briefs or assists, or both, the pilot-in-command in the safe conduct of the flight.

Remote pilot = a natural person responsible for safely conducting the flight of an unmanned aircraft by operating its flight controls, either manually or, when the unmanned aircraft flies automatically, by monitoring its course and remaining able to intervene and change the course at any time.

For the purpose of passenger classification:

(a) Adult = a person of an age of 12 years and above.

(b) Child/children = persons who are of an age of two years and above but who are less than 12 years of age.

(c) Infant = a person under the age of two years.

HHO passenger = a person who is to be transferred by means of a helicopter hoist.

Medical passenger = a medical person carried in a helicopter during a HEMS flight or in a VCA during a VEMS flight, including but not limited to doctors, nurses and paramedics.

HEMS crew member = a technical crew member who is assigned to a HEMS flight for the purpose of attending to any person in need of medical assistance carried in the helicopter and assisting the pilot during the mission.

HHO crew member = a technical crew member who performs assigned duties relating to the operation of a hoist.

NVIS crew member = a technical crew member assigned to an NVIS flight.

VEMS technical crew member = a technical crew member (TCM) that is assigned to a VEMS flight for the purpose of assisting the pilot during the flight operation and attending to any person in need of medical assistance.

Ground emergency service personnel = any ground emergency service personnel, such as police officers, firefighters, etc., involved in helicopter emergency medical services (HEMSs) or in emergency medical services with VCA (VEMSs) and whose tasks are to any extent pertinent to the operation.

Ground personnel = the personnel other than flight crew members or technical crew members that are assigned to tasks related to the ground movement of the VCA or any other ground assistance provided to aircraft, and have received training in the relevant operational and safety procedures.

Task specialist = a person assigned by the operator or a third party, or acting as an undertaking, who performs tasks on the ground directly associated with a specialised task or performs specialised tasks on board or from the aircraft.

Safety-sensitive personnel = persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform their duties and functions improperly, including flight crew and cabin crew members, aircraft maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers.

Safety-sensitive personnel = persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform their duties and functions improperly, including crew members, aircraft maintenance personnel, aerodrome operations personnel, rescue, fire-fighting and maintenance personnel, personnel allowed unescorted access to the movement area and air traffic controllers.

Dangerous goods (DG) = articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the technical instructions or which are classified according to those instructions.

Dangerous goods accident = an occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage.

Dangerous goods incident =

(a) an occurrence other than a dangerous goods accident associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained.

(b) any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants.

Acceptance checklist = a document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met with.

Refer to the METAR and TAF article for detailed explanations, interpretation guidance, and practical examples, including sample METAR codes.

Meteorological information = meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions.

Meteorological bulletin = a text comprising meteorological information preceded by an appropriate heading.

Meteorological observation = the measurement and/or evaluation of one or more meteorological elements.

Meteorological report = a statement of observed meteorological conditions related to a specified time and location.

Forecast = a statement of expected meteorological conditions for a specified time or period, and for a specified area or portion of airspace.

Terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) = a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an aerodrome for a specified period.

Local routine report = a meteorological report issued at fixed time intervals, intended only for dissemination at the aerodrome of origin where the observations were made.

Local special report = a meteorological report issued in accordance with the criteria established for special observations, intended only for dissemination at the aerodrome of origin where the observations were made.

Forecast for take-off = a forecast for a specified period of time, prepared by an aerodrome meteorological office, which contains information on expected conditions over the runways complex in regard to surface wind direction and speed and any variations thereof, temperature, pressure (QNH) and any other element as agreed locally.

Automatic terminal information service (ATIS) = the automatic provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 hours or a specified portion thereof:

Data link-automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS) = the provision of ATIS via data link.

Voice-automatic terminal information service (Voice-ATIS) = the provision of ATIS by means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts.

VOLMET = meteorological information for aircraft in flight.

VOLMET broadcast = the provision, as appropriate, of current METAR, SPECI, TAF and SIGMET by means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts.

Data link-VOLMET (D-VOLMET) = the provision of aerodrome routine meteorological report (METAR), aerodrome special meteorological report (SPECI), TAF, SIGMET, special air-reports not covered by a SIGMET and, where available, AIRMET via data link.

Visibility (VIS) = visibility for aeronautical purposes, which is the greater of:

(a) the greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright background. and

(b) the greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background.

Visibility = visibility for aeronautical purposes which is the greater of:

(a) the greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright background.

(b) the greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background.

Prevailing visibility = the greatest visibility value, observed in accordance with the definition of visibility, which is reached within at least half the horizon circle or within at least half of the surface of the aerodrome. These areas could comprise contiguous or non-contiguous sectors.

Ground visibility = the visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.

Ground visibility = the visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.

Flight visibility = the visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

Flight visibility = the visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

Converted meteorological visibility (CMV) = a value, equivalent to an RVR, which is derived from the reported meteorological visibility.

For a complete explanation, read our article: Converted Meteorological Visibility (CMV) vs RVR

Runway visual range (RVR) = the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.

Runway visual range (RVR) = the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.

Ceiling = the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6 000 m (20 000 ft) covering more than half of the sky.

Cloud base = the height of the base of the lowest observed or forecast cloud element in the vicinity of an aerodrome or operating site or within a specified area of operations, normally measured above aerodrome elevation or, in the case of offshore operations, above mean sea level.

Cloud of operational significance = a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1 500 m (5 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, or a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height.

 

Visual meteorological conditions mean meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.

Visual meteorological conditions (VMC) = meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.

VMC = the symbol used to designate visual meteorological conditions.

Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) mean meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.

Visual flight rules flight or VFR flight = a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules.

Special VFR flight = a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.

Instrument flight rules are rules which allow an aircraft which is equipped with suitable navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown in accordance with the applicable requirements on air operations.

Aerodrome operating minima = the limits of usability of an aerodrome for:

(a) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range (RVR) and/or visibility and, if necessary, ceiling .

(b) landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, ceiling.

(c) landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the type and/or category of the operation.

For a complete explanation, read our article: Operating vs Planning Minima – Explained for Pilots

Wet runway = a runway whose surface is covered by any visible dampness or water up to and including 3 mm deep within the area intended to be used.

SIGMET = information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather and other phenomena in the atmosphere which may affect the safety of aircraft operations and of the development of those phenomena in time and space.

AIRMET = information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and of the development of those phenomena in time and space, and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof. 

Special air-report = a meteorological report by an aircraft issued in accordance with the criteria based on observations made during the flight.

Meteorological watch office (MWO) = an office monitoring meteorological conditions affecting flight operations and providing information concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather and other phenomena in the atmosphere which may affect the safety of aircraft operations within its specified area of responsibility.

World area forecast centre (WAFC) = a meteorological centre preparing and issuing significant weather (SIGWX) forecasts and upper-air forecasts in digital form on a global basis direct to the Member States as part of the aeronautical fixed service (AFS) internet-based services.

World area forecast system (WAFS) = a worldwide system by which world area forecast centres provide aeronautical meteorological en-route forecasts in uniform standardised formats.

Tropical cyclone advisory centre (TCAC) = a meteorological centre providing advisory information to meteorological watch offices, world area forecast centres and international OPMET databanks regarding the position, forecast direction and speed of movement, central pressure and maximum surface wind of tropical cyclones.

Volcanic ash advisory centre (VAAC) = a meteorological centre that provides advisory information to meteorological watch offices, area control centres, flight information centres, world area forecast centres and international OPMET databanks regarding the lateral and vertical extent and forecast movement of volcanic ash in the atmosphere.

Space weather centre (SWXC) = a centre designated to monitor and provide advisory information on space weather phenomena expected to affect high-frequency radio communications, communications via satellite, GNSS-based navigation and surveillance systems and/or pose a radiation risk to aircraft occupants.

Volcano observatory = a provider, selected by the competent authority, which observes the activity of a volcano or a group of volcanoes and makes these observations available to an agreed list of aviation recipients.

Meteorological satellite = an artificial Earth satellite making meteorological observations and transmitting these observations to Earth.

OPMET = operational meteorological information for use in preparatory or in-flight planning of flight operations.

OPMET databank = a databank established to store and make available internationally operational meteorological information for aeronautical use.

Prognostic chart = a forecast of (a) specified meteorological element(s) for a specified time or period and a specified surface or portion of airspace, depicted graphically on a chart.

Pre-eruption volcanic activity = an unusual and/or increasing volcanic activity which could presage a volcanic eruption.

Tropical cyclone is a generic term for a non-frontal synoptic-scale cyclone originating over tropical or subtropical waters with organised convection and definite cyclonic surface wind circulation.

Common information service = a service consisting in dissemination of static and dynamic data to enable the provision of U-space services for the management of traffic of unmanned aircraft.

Dynamic airspace reconfiguration = the temporary modification of the U-space airspace in order to accommodate short-term changes in manned traffic demand, by adjusting the geographical limits of that U-space airspace.

Geography Markup Language (GML) = an encoding standard of the Open Geospatial Consortium (OGC).

NOTAM = a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.

SNOWTAM = a special series NOTAM given in a standard format, which provides a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush, frost, standing water or water associated with snow, slush, ice, or frost on the movement area.

ASHTAM = a special series of NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format of a change in the activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations.

International NOTAM office (NOF) = an office designated by a Member State for the exchange of NOTAM internationally.

I = IFR

V = VFR

K = NOTAM is a checklist

N = NOTAM selected for the immediate attention of flight crew members

B = NOTAM of operational significance selected for PIB entry

O = NOTAM concerning flight operations

M = Miscellaneous NOTAM; not subject for a briefing, but available on request

K = NOTAM is a checklist

A = Aerodrome

E = En-route

W = Nav Warning

K = NOTAM is a checklist

 

For a detailed decoding and explanation, refer to our article: NOTAM Structure & Codes

For a complete explanation, read our article: Minimum fuel requirements in NCO

Contingency fuel/energy = the fuel/energy required to compensate for unforeseen factors that could have an influence on the fuel/energy consumption to the destination aerodrome or vertiport.

Current fuel/energy scheme = the approved fuel/energy scheme that is currently used by the operator.

Safe landing = in the context of the fuel/energy policy or fuel/energy schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome or operating site or at an adequate vertiport or diversion location with no less than the final reserve fuel/energy remaining and in compliance with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.

Minimum fuel = a term used to describe a situation in which an aircraft’s fuel/energy supply has reached a state where the flight is committed to land at a specific aerodrome and no additional delay can be accepted (You are close to using the final reserve).

Controlled flight: transmit “MINIMUM FUEL”.

Any delay may result in landing with less than the planned final reserve — you are committed to land.

Mayday fuel = You are using the final reserve.

Controlled flight: transmit “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL”.

The fuel available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome will be less than the final reserve.

Objective = Onboard fuel/energy and oil are sufficient, considering weather, aircraft performance, expected delays in flight, and contingencies that may reasonably be expected.

Taxi fuel = This is the fuel expected to be consumed before take-off (engine start, taxi, delays on ground).

Trip fuel = This is the fuel required from take-off to landing at the destination, including climb, cruise, and descent and procedures. That shall be the amount of fuel that is required to enable the aeroplane to fly from take-off, or from the point of in-flight re-planning, to landing at the destination aerodrome.

Contingency fuel = that shall be the amount of fuel/energy required to compensate for unforeseen factors.

Alternate fuel = If an alternate is needed, plan alternate fuel.

Destination alternate fuel (in CAT) =

(i) when a flight is operated with at least one destination alternate aerodrome, it shall be the amount of fuel required to fly from the destination aerodrome to the destination alternate aerodrome; or

(ii) when a flight is operated with no destination alternate aerodrome, it shall be the amount of fuel required to hold at the destination aerodrome, while enabling the aeroplane to perform a safe landing, and to allow for deviations from the planned operation; as a minimum, this amount shall be 15-minute fuel at holding speed at 1 500ft (450 m) above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated according to the estimated aeroplane mass on arrival at the destination aerodrome.

Final reserve fuel in NCO = NCO regulations also impose a final reserve fuel, which must always remain on board at landing (at destination or alternate). It is a protected reserve.

The final reserve fuel should be no less than the required fuel to fly:

• • VFR day, local flights = 10 minutes at maximum continuous cruise power at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome/landing site, always remaining within sight of it.
  • VFR day = 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the destination aerodrome.
  • VFR night and IFR = 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the destination or destination alternate aerodrome.

 

Final reserve fuel in CAT = the amount of fuel that is calculated at holding speed at 1 500ft (450 m) above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions according to the aeroplane estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome, or destination aerodrome when no destination alternate aerodrome is required, and shall not be less than:

(i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, the fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or

(ii) for turbine-engined aeroplanes, the fuel to fly for 30 minutes.

Additional fuel in CAT = if required by the type of operation; it shall be the amount of fuel to enable the aeroplane to land at a fuel en route alternate aerodrome (fuel ERA aerodrome critical scenario) in the event of an aircraft failure that significantly increases the fuel consumption at the most critical point along the route; this additional fuel is required only if the minimum amount of fuel that is calculated according to points (c)(2) to (c)(5) is not sufficient for such an event.

Extra fuel = to take into account anticipated delays or specific operational constraints.

Discretionary fuel = if required by the commander. The commander’s decision on the amount of fuel to be carried is entirely independent and cannot be encouraged or discouraged. The same principle can apply in NCO: as PIC you are responsible for safety, and nobody should criticise you for carrying extra margin, unless the additional weight makes the aircraft’s performance unsafe.

‘Mass’ and ‘Weight’ = In accordance with ICAO Annex 5 and the International System of Units (SI), both terms are used to indicate the actual and limiting masses of aircraft, the payload and its constituent elements, the fuel load, etc. These are expressed in units of mass (kg), but in most approved flight manuals and other operational documentation, these quantities are published as weights in accordance with the common language. In the ICAO standardised system of units of measurement, a weight is a force rather than a mass. Since the use of the term ‘weight’ does not cause any problem in the day-today handling of aircraft, its continued use in operational applications and publications is acceptable.

Basic empty mass (BEM) = the mass of the aircraft including the airframe, engines, permanently installed equipment, unusable fuel, operating fluids and fixed ballast, but excluding crew, usable fuel and traffic load.

Dry operating mass = the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, excluding usable fuel and traffic load.

Dry operating mass (DOM) = the mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. This mass includes basic empty mass, crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

Operating mass (OM) = the mass of the aircraft including dry operating mass and usable fuel, but excluding traffic load.

Traffic Load (= payload) = The total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and carry-on specialist equipment and including any ballast. [FL116]

Useful load = the difference between the maximum take-off mass and the dry operating mass, representing the total mass available for traffic load and usable fuel.

Zero fuel mass (ZFM) = the mass of the aircraft including dry operating mass and traffic load, but excluding all usable fuel.

Taxi mass = the mass of the aircraft at engine start or pushback, including all usable fuel, prior to taxi fuel consumption.

Take-off mass (TOM) = the mass including everything and everyone carried on board at the commencement of the take-off for helicopters or for VCA, and during the take-off run for aeroplanes.

Take-off mass = means the mass including everything and everyone carried at the commencement of the take-off run for aeroplanes. [FL112]

Landing mass (LM) = the mass of the aircraft at touchdown, equal to the take-off mass minus the fuel burned during the flight.

Maximum Structural Landing Mass = The maximum permissible total aeroplane mass upon landing under normal circumstances. [FL77]

Maximum Structural Take Off Mass = The maximum permissible total airplane mass at the start of the take-off run. [FL78]

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass = The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. The mass of the fuel contained in particular tanks should be included in the zero fuel mass when it is explicitly mentioned in the Aircraft Flight Manual. [FL79]

Cockpit voice recorder (CVR) = a crash-protected flight recorder that uses a combination of microphones and other audio and digital inputs to collect and record the aural environment of the flight crew compartment and communications to, from and between the flight crew members.

Flight data recorder (FDR) = a crash-protected flight recorder that uses a combination of data sources to collect and record parameters that reflect the state and performance of the aircraft.

Flight recorder = any type of recorder that is installed on the aircraft for the purpose of facilitating accident or incident safety investigations.

Aircraft tracking system = a system that relies on aircraft tracking in order to identify abnormal flight behaviour and provide alert.

Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) = an aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders.

Automatic dependent surveillance — broadcast (ADS-B) = a means by which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data link.

Automatic dependent surveillance — contract (ADS-C) = a means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.

Automatic dependent surveillance — contract (ADS-C) agreement = a reporting plan which establishes the conditions of ADS-C data reporting (i.e. data required by the air traffic services unit and frequency of ADS-C reports which have to be agreed to, prior to using ADS-C in the provision of air traffic services).

Mode (SSR) = the conventional identifier related to specific functions of the interrogation signals transmitted by an SSR interrogator. There are four modes specified in ICAO Annex 10: A, C, S and intermode.

Code (SSR) = the number assigned to a particular multiple pulse reply signal transmitted by a transponder in Mode A or Mode C.

Mode S interrogator = a system, composed of antenna and electronics, which supports the addressing of individual aircraft through the Mode Select (Mode S).

Eligible Mode S interrogator = a Mode S interrogator for which at least one of the following conditions is satisfied:

(a) the interrogator relies, at least partly, on Mode S all call interrogations and replies for Mode S targets acquisition.

(b) the interrogator locks out acquired Mode S targets in reply to Mode S all call interrogations, permanently or intermittently, in part or the totality of its coverage. or

(c) the interrogator uses multisite communications protocols for data link applications.

Mode S operator = a person, organisation or enterprise that operates or offers to operate a Mode S interrogator, including:

(a) surveillance service providers.

(b) Mode S interrogator manufacturers.

(c) aerodrome operators.

(d) research establishments.

(e) any other entity entitled to operate a Mode S interrogator.

Electronic flight bag (EFB) = an electronic information system, comprised of equipment and applications for flight crew, which allows for the storing, updating, displaying and processing of EFB functions to support flight operations or duties.

EFB system = the hardware equipment (including any battery, connectivity provisions, input/output components) and software (including databases and the operating system) needed to support the intended EFB application(s).

EFB host platform = the hardware equipment in which the computing capabilities and basic software reside, including the operating system and the input/output software.

EFB application = a software application installed on an EFB host platform that provides one or more specific operational functions which support flight operations.

Portable EFB = a portable EFB host platform, used on the flight deck, which is not part of the configuration of the certified aircraft.

Type A EFB application = an EFB application whose malfunction or misuse has no safety effect.

Type B EFB application = an EFB application:

(a) whose malfunction or misuse is classified as minor failure condition or below. and

(b) which neither replaces nor duplicates any system or functionality required by airworthiness regulations, airspace requirements, or operational rules.

Enhanced flight vision system (EFVS)’ is an electronic means to provide the flight crew with a real-time sensor-derived or enhanced display of the external scene topography through the use of imaging sensors. an EFVS is integrated with a flight guidance system and is implemented on a head-up display or an equivalent display system. if an EFVS is certified according to the applicable airworthiness requirements and an operator holds the necessary specific approval (when required), then it may be used for EFVS operations and may allow operations with operational credits.

Enhanced vision system (EVS)’ is an electronic means to provide the flight crew with a real-time image of the actual external scene topography through the use of imaging sensors.

Head-up display landing system (HUDLS) = the total airborne system which provides head-up guidance to the pilot to enable the pilot to either control the aircraft or to monitor the autopilot during take-off (if applicable), approach and landing (and roll-out if applicable), or go-around.

Human–machine interface (HMI) = a component of certain devices that is capable of handling human–machine interactions. The interface consists of hardware and software that allow user inputs to be interpreted and processed by machines or systems that, in turn, provide the required results to the user.

Night vision goggles (NVG) = a head-mounted, binocular, light intensification appliance that enhances the ability to maintain visual surface references at night.

Night vision imaging system (NVIS) = the integration of all elements required to successfully and safely use NVGs while operating a helicopter. The system includes as a minimum: NVGs, NVIS lighting, helicopter components, training and continuing airworthiness.

 

Personnel-carrying device system (PCDS) = a system including one or more devices that is either attached to a hoist or cargo hook or mounted to the rotorcraft airframe during human external cargo (HEC) or helicopter hoist operations (HHO).

Simple personnel carrying device system (simple “PCDS”) = a PCDS that complies with the following conditions:

(a) meets a harmonised standard under Regulation (EU) 2016/425 or Directive 2006/42/EC.

(b) is designed to restrain no more than a single person inside the cabin, or no more than two persons outside the cabin.

(c) is not a rigid structure such as a cage, a platform or a basket.

Data link communications = a form of communication intended for the exchange of messages via a data link.

Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC) = a means of communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications.

Emergency exit = an installed exit-type egress point from the aircraft that allows maximum opportunity for cabin and flight crew compartment evacuation within an appropriate time period.

Rectification interval = a limitation on the duration of operations with inoperative equipment.

Portable electronic device (PED) = any kind of electronic device, typically but not limited to consumer electronics, brought on board the aircraft by crew members, passengers, or as part of the cargo, that is not included in the configuration of the certified aircraft.

Non-installed equipment = any instrument, equipment, mechanism, apparatus, appurtenance, software or accessory carried on board of an aircraft by the aircraft operator, which is not a part, and which is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft, supports the occupants' survivability, or which could impact the safe operation of the aircraft.

Equipment to control unmanned aircraft remotely = any instrument, equipment, mechanism, apparatus, appurtenance, software or accessory that is necessary for the safe operation of an unmanned aircraft, which is not a part, and which is not carried on board of that unmanned aircraft.

AC = Advisory Circular

ACAS = Airborne Collision Avoidance System

AFM = Aeroplane Flight Manual

AGL = Above Ground Level

AIM = Airman’s Information Manual

AMC = Acceptable Means of Compliance

ARP = Accepted and Recommended Practice

ATC = Air Traffic Control

ATTCS = Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System

AWO = All Weather Operations

 

CDI = Course Deviation Indicator

CG = Centre of Gravity

CL = Lift Coefficient

CLMAX = Maximum Lift Coefficient

CWS = Control Wheel Steering

 

DA = Decision Altitude

DA(H) = Decision Altitude (Height)

DME = Distance Measuring Equipment

 

EFIS = Electronic Flight Instrument System

EVS = Enhanced Vision System

 

FAA = Federal Aviation Administration

FCOM = Flight Crew Operating Manual

F/D = Flight Director

FGS = Flight Guidance System

FLCH = Flight Level Change

FMA = Flight Mode Annunciator

FMS = Flight Management System

 

GA = Go-around

GLS = GNSS Landing System

GNSS = Global Navigation Satellite System

GPWS = Ground Proximity Warning System

 

HDD = Head Down Display

HUD = Head-Up Display

 

IAS = Indicated Air Speed

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

ILS = Instrument Landing System

IMA = Integrated Modular Avionics

IMC = Instrument Meteorological Conditions

ICTS = Ice-Contaminated Tailplane Stall

 

JAA = Joint Aviation Authorities

 

LNAV = Lateral Navigation

LOC = Localizer

LWC = Liquid Water Content

 

MDA(H) = Minimum Descent Altitude (Height)

MED = Mean Effective Diameter

MLS = Microwave Landing System

MSL = Mean Sea Level

MSP = Mode Select Panel

MUH = Minimum Use Height

MVD = Median Volume Diameter

 

NAV = Navigation

NDB = Non Directional Beacon

ND = Navigation Display

NPA = Notice of Proposed Amendment

NPRM = Notice of Proposed Rulemaking

 

PF = Pilot Flying

PFD = Primary Flight Display

PNF = Pilot Not Flying

 

RNAV = Area Navigation

RNP = Required Navigation Performance

RTO = Rejected Takeoff

RVSM = Reduced Vertical Separation Margin

 

SAE = Society of Automotive Engineering

SVS = Synthetic Vision System

 

TCAS = Traffic Collision Alert System

TCS = Touch Control Steering

TO = Takeoff

TOGA = Takeoff or Go-around

 

VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

VNAV = Vertical Navigation

VOR = VHF Omni Range

 

WAT = Weight Altitude Temperature

Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) = An EASA-approved document that contains information, including limitations, operating procedures and performance data, necessary to operate the aeroplane at the level of safety established by its certification basis.

Flight Crew Operating Manual (FCOM) = A document developed by the manufacturer that describes in detail the characteristics and operation of the aeroplane and its systems.

Trim = A flight condition in which the aerodynamic moment acting about the axis of interest is zero. In the absence of an external disturbance, no control input is required to maintain the flight condition.

Electrical wiring interconnection system (EWIS) = Any wire, wiring device or combination thereof, including termination devices, installed in the aeroplane to transmit electrical energy, data or signals between intended termination points.

Structural performance = The capability of the aeroplane to meet the structural requirements of CS-25.

Flight limitations = Limitations applied to aeroplane flight conditions following an in-flight occurrence and included in the flight manual.

Operational limitations = Limitations applied to aeroplane operating conditions prior to dispatch, including fuel, payload and MMEL-related limitations.

Flash point = The lowest temperature at which the application of a flame to a heated sample of a flammable fluid causes its vapour to ignite momentarily.

Screen height = The reference height above the runway surface from which the landing distance is measured, selected between 35 ft and 60 ft, typically 50 ft.

Steep approach landing = An approach to land conducted using a glide path angle greater than or equal to 4.5°.

Head-Up Display (HUD) = A display system that projects primary flight information on a transparent combiner in the pilot’s forward field of view, allowing simultaneous external visual reference and flight information viewing without scanning head-down displays.

Take-off thrust = The approved thrust setting established for take-off operations, presented in the AFM and considered a normal take-off operating limit.

Derated take-off thrust = A take-off thrust less than maximum take-off thrust, for which separate and independent limitations and performance data are provided in the AFM.

Reduced take-off thrust = A take-off thrust less than take-off or derated take-off thrust, established by approved methods, which is not considered a take-off operating limit.

Some abbreviations listed in this section may be used exclusively in simulator environments and may not be applicable to the actual aircraft configuration.

 

A/P = Autopilot

A/T = Autothrottle

AC = Alternating Current

ACARS = Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System

ACP = Audio Control Panel

ACQ = Acquire

ACT = Active

ADF = Automatic Direction Finder

ADIRU = Air Data Inertial Reference Unit

ADM = Air Data Module

ADS-B = Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast

AED = Automatic External Defibrillator

AFDS = Autopilot Flight Director System

AFE = Above Field Elevation

AFM = Airplane Flight Manual (FAA approved)

AGL = Above Ground Level

AI = Anti-Ice

AIL = Aileron

ALT = Altitude

ALTN = Alternate

AM = Amplitude Modulation

ANP = Actual Navigation Performance

ANT = Antenna

AOA = Angle of Attack

AOR = Area of Responsibility

APP = Approach

APU = Auxiliary Power Unit

ARINC = Aeronautical Radio, Incorporated

ARPT = Airport

ARTE = Above Runway Threshold Elevation

ATA = Actual Time of Arrival

ATC = Air Traffic Control

ATT = Attitude

AUTO = Automatic

AUX = Auxiliary

AVAIL = Available

 

B/C or BCRS = Back Course

BARO = Barometric

BAT/BATT = Battery

BRT = Bright

BTL DISCH = Bottle Discharge (fire extinguishers)

BTP = Bromotrifluropropene (fire extinguishers)

 

C = Captain or Celsius or Center

CANC/RCL = Cancel/Recall

CB = Circuit Breaker

CDFA = Continuous Descent Final Approach

CDU = Control Display Unit

CG = Center of Gravity

CHKL = Checklist

CLB = Climb

COMM = Communication

CON = Continuous

CONFIG = Configuration

CRZ = Cruise

CTL = Control

 

DA = Decision Altitude

DDA = Derived Decision Altitude

DC = Direct Current

DDG = Dispatch Deviations Guide

DEP ARR = Departure Arrival

DES = Descent

DEU = Display Electronics Unit

DISC = Disconnect

DME = Distance Measuring Equipment

DSPL = Display

 

E/D = End of Descent

E/E = Electrical and Electronic

EASA = European Aviation Safety Agency

EBAW = Enhanced Bank Angle Warning

ECS = Environmental Control System

EEC = Electronic Engine Control

EFIS = Electronic Flight Instrument System

EGPWS = Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System

EGT = Exhaust Gas Temperature

ELEC = Electrical

ELEV = Elevator

ENG = Engine

EOSID = Engine Out Standard Instrument Departure

EXEC = Execute

EXT = Extend

 

F = Fahrenheit

F/D or FLT DIR = Flight Director

F/O = First Officer

FA = Flight Attendant

FAF = Final Approach Fix

FAP = Final Approach Point

FAS = Final Approach Segment

FCC = Flight Control Computer

FCTL = Flight Control

FCTM = Flight Crew Training Manual

FFM = Force Fight Monitor

FL = Flight Level

FMA = Flight Mode Annunciation

FMC = Flight Management Computer

FMS = Flight Management System

FPA = Flight Path Angle

FPV = Flight Path Vector

FSEU = Flap Slat Electronic Unit

 

G/P = Glide Path

G/S = Glide Slope

GA = Go-Around

GBAS = Ground-Based Augmentation System

GEN = Generator

GLS GBAS = Landing System

GP = Glide Path

GPS = Global Positioning System

GPWS = Ground Proximity Warning System

 

HDG = Heading

HDG REF = Heading Reference

HDG SEL = Heading Select

HPA = Hectopascals

HUD = Head-Up Display

HYD = Hydraulic

 

IAN = Integrated Approach Navigation

IAP = Instrument Approach Procedure

IAS = Indicated Airspeed

IAW = In Accordance With

IDENT = Identification

ILS = Instrument Landing System

IMMR = Integrated Multi-Mode Receiver

IN = Inches

INBD = Inboard

IND LTS = Indicator Lights

INOP = Inoperative

INTC CRS = Intercept Course

ISFD = Integrated Standby Flight Display

ISLN = Isolation

 

K = Knots

KGS = Kilograms

 

L = Left

LAT = Latitude

LBS = Pounds

LDA = Localizer-type Directional Aid

LDG ALT = Landing Altitude

LE = Leading Edge

LIM = Limit

LNAV = Lateral Navigation

LOM = Locator Outer Marker

LONG = Longitude

LVL CHG = Level Change

 

MAG = Magnetic

MAN = Manual

MCP = Mode Control Panel

MDA = Minimum Descent Altitude

MEL = Minimum Equipment List

MFD = Multifunction Display

MIN = Minimum

MKR = Marker

MMO = Maximum Mach Operating Speed

MOD = Modify

MTRS = Meters

MVA = Minimum Vectoring Altitude

MX = Maintenance

 

N1 = Low Pressure Rotor Speed

N2 = High Pressure Rotor Speed

NAV RAD = Navigation Radio

ND = Navigation Display

NDB = Non-Directional Beacon

NGS = Nitrogen Generation System

NM = Nautical Miles

NORM = Normal

NPS = Navigation Performance Scales

 

OHU = Overhead Unit

OPT = Onboard Performance Tool

OVHD = Overhead

OVRD = Override

 

PASS = Passenger

PCU = Power Control Unit

PERF INIT = Performance Initialization

PF = Pilot Flying

PFC = Primary Flight Computers

PIC = Pilot In Command

PM = Pilot Monitoring

PNL = Panel

POS = Position

POS INIT = Position Initialization

PRI = Primary

PRW = Perspective Runway

PTU = Power Transfer Unit

PWS = Predictive Windshear System

 

R = Right

RA = Radio Altitude

RA = Resolution Advisory

RAAS = Runway Awareness and Advisory System

RECIRC = Recirculation

REF = Reference

RET = Retract

RF = Refill

RH = Right Hand

RNP = Required Navigation Performance

RVSM = Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

 

S/C = Step Climb

SEL = Select

SMYD = Stall Management Yaw Damper

SPD = Speed

SPLR = Spoiler

STA = Station

STAB = Stabilizer

STAT = Status

STD = Standard

STS = Speed Trim System

 

T/D = Top of Descent

T or TK or TRK = Track

T or TRU = True

TA = Traffic Advisory

TAI = Thermal Anti-Ice

TAT = Total Air Temperature

TCAS = Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TDZE = Touch Down Zone Elevation

TE = Trailing Edge

TFC = Traffic

THR HLD = Throttle Hold

TO = Takeoff

TO/GA = Takeoff/Go–Around

 

UPR DSPL = Upper Display

UTC = Universal Time Coordinated

 

V/S = Vertical Speed

V1 = Takeoff Decision Speed

V2 = Takeoff Safety Speed

VA = Design Maneuvering Speed

VHF = Very High Frequency

VMO = Maximum Operating Speed

VNAV = Vertical Navigation

VOR VHF = Omnidirectional Range

VR = Rotation Speed

VREF = Reference Speed

VSD = Vertical Situation Display

VTK = Vertical Track

 

WPT = Waypoint

WXR = Weather Radar

 

XTK = Cross Track

Indicated Airspeed (IAS) = airspeed shown on the pitot-static airspeed indicator, uncorrected for system errors, and calibrated for standard atmosphere at sea level.

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) = indicated airspeed corrected for position and instrument error, equal to true airspeed at sea level in standard atmosphere.

Equivalent Airspeed (EAS) = calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a specific altitude, equal to calibrated airspeed at sea level in standard atmosphere.

True Airspeed (TAS) = the airspeed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air.

Mach Number (MN) = the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound.

Ground Speed (GS) = the horizontal speed of an aircraft relative to the Earth’s surface. It is the vector sum of true airspeed (TAS) and wind.

VA = design manoeuvring speed.

Maximum speed at which full and abrupt control deflection will not exceed structural load limits.

 

VB = design speed for maximum gust intensity.

Turbulence penetration speed protecting the structure from gust loads.

 

VC = design cruising speed.

Speed for which the aircraft was originally intended to cruise.

 

VD / MD = design diving speed.

Speed at which the aircraft is designed to dive in smooth air without flutter, control reversal or buffeting.

 

VDF / MDF = demonstrated flight diving speed.

VF = design flap speed.

 VFE = maximum flap extended speed.

 VF1 = design flap speed for procedural flight conditions.

VMCG = minimum control speed on or near the ground.

Calibrated airspeed during take-off run at which directional control can be maintained using rudder alone (no nosewheel steering), with lateral deviation not exceeding 9.1 m and rudder force not exceeding 667 N.

VMC or VMCA = minimum control speed in the air.

Calibrated airspeed at which control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative, bank angle not exceeding 5°.

VMCL = minimum control speed during approach and landing with all engines operating.

VMCL-2 = minimum control speed during approach and landing with two engines inoperative (three-engine or more aeroplanes).

VS = stall speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.

VSO = stall speed in the landing configuration.

VSR = reference stall speed (CS 25.103).

VSR0 = reference stall speed in landing configuration.

VSR1 = reference stall speed in a specified configuration.

VSW = speed at which stall warning occurs.

VS1 = stall speed in a specified configuration.

VS1g = one-g stall speed.

VEF = calibrated airspeed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail.

VEF may not be less than VMCG.

V1 = take-off decision speed.

Maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to stop within accelerate-stop distance.

Also the minimum speed at which, following engine failure at VEF, the take-off can be safely continued.

VR = rotation speed.

Speed at which rotation is initiated to achieve lift-off and reach V2 by 35 ft.

VMU = minimum unstick speed.

Minimum speed at which the aeroplane can safely lift off and continue the take-off.

VLOF = lift-off speed.

Calibrated airspeed at which the aeroplane first becomes airborne.

V2 = take-off safety speed.

Minimum speed to be achieved at 35 ft, providing required climb gradient and manoeuvrability.

V2MIN = minimum take-off safety speed.

Lower limit for V2 based on stall speed and controllability margins.

VFTO = final take-off speed.

Speed at the end of the take-off path, flaps up, one engine inoperative.

VTOSS = VTOL take-off safety speed.

Minimum speed at which climb must be achieved for VCA operated in the Enhanced category.

VX = best angle of climb speed.

Provides maximum climb gradient.

VY = best rate of climb speed.

Provides maximum altitude gain per unit of time.

VMD = minimum drag speed. Best endurance speed.

Best range speed = 1.32 VMD for jet aircraft.

Long range cruise (LRC) = speed providing 99% of maximum range at zero wind.

Drift-down speed = speed providing best drift-down path angle and level-off altitude.

VNE = never exceed speed.

VMO / MMO = maximum operating speed (IAS / Mach).

VREF(SAL) = The calibrated airspeed selected for a stabilised steep approach landing, maintained down to screen height, not less than 1.23 VSR, VMCL, or the speed required by CS 25.143(h), whichever is greater.

VREF(SAL)-1 = The calibrated airspeed used during a stabilised one-engine-inoperative steep approach landing, not less than VREF(SAL).

VLE = maximum landing gear extended speed.

VLO = maximum landing gear operating speed.

VREF = reference landing speed.

VREF ≥ 1.23 VSR0 (CS 25.125).

 

THRESHOLD SPEEDS AND APPROACH CATEGORIES

 

VT = threshold speed.

VTmax = maximum threshold speed.

VAT = indicated airspeed at threshold. Used to determine aircraft approach category.

 

Aircraft categories based on VAT:

• B734 and B738: Category C or D
• B747: Category D

Competency = a dimension of human performance that is used to reliably predict successful performance on the job and which is manifested and observed through behaviours that mobilise the relevant knowledge, skills and attitudes to carry out activities or tasks under specified conditions.

Competency-based training = assessment and training programmes that are characterised by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and their measurement and the development of training to the specified performance standards.

Competency framework = a complete set of identified competencies that are developed, trained and assessed in the operators evidence-based training programme utilising scenarios that are relevant to operations and which is wide enough to prepare the pilot for both foreseen and unforeseen threats and errors.

Evidence-based training (EBT) = assessment and training based on operational data that is characterised by developing and assessing the overall capability of a pilot across a range of competencies (competency framework) rather than by measuring the performance in individual events or manoeuvres.

Training to proficiency = training designed to achieve end-state performance objectives, providing sufficient assurance that the trained individual is capable of consistently carrying out specific tasks safely and effectively.

 

EBT module = a combination of sessions in a qualified flight simulation training device as part of the 3-year period of recurrent assessment and training.

Enrolment = the administrative action carried out by the operator where a pilot participates in the operator’s EBT programme.

Enrolled pilot = the pilot that participates in the EBT recurrent training programme.

Mixed EBT programme = an operator’s recurrent training and checking programme as per ORO.FC.230, a portion of which is dedicated to the application of EBT but which does not replace proficiency checks as per Appendix 9 to Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.

Evaluation phase = one of the phases of an EBT module which is a line-orientated flight scenario, representative of the operator’s environment during which there are one or more occurrences to evaluate key elements of the defined competency framework.

Manoeuvres training phase = a phase of an EBT module during which, according to aircraft generation, crews have time to practise and improve performance in largely psychomotor skill-based exercises by achieving a prescribed flight path or performing a prescribed event to a prescribed outcome.

Scenario-based training phase = a phase of an EBT module which focuses on the development of competencies, whilst the pilot is trained to mitigate the most critical risks identified for the aircraft generation. It should include the management of specific operator’s threats and errors in a real-time line-orientated environment.

Equivalency of approaches = all the approaches that place an additional demand on a proficient crew regardless of whether they are used or not in the EBT modules.

Equivalency of malfunctions = all the malfunctions that put a significant demand on a proficient crew regardless of whether they are used or not in the EBT modules.

In-seat instruction = a technique used in the manoeuvres training phase or the scenario-based training phase, where the instructors can:

(a) provide simple instructions to one pilot. or

(b) perform predetermined exercises acting, in a pilot seat, as pilot flying (PF) or pilot monitoring (PM) for:

(1) the demonstration of techniques. and/or

(2) triggering the other pilot to intervene or interact.

Instructor concordance = the consistency or stability of scores between different EBT instructors which gives a score (or scores) of how much homogeneity, or consensus, there is in the ratings given by instructors (raters).

Line-orientated flight scenario = the assessment and training involving a realistic, real-time, full mission simulation of scenarios that are representative of line operations.

Line check = a check conducted by the operator and completed by the pilot or the technical crew member to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations manual.

Operator proficiency check = a check conducted by the operator and completed by the pilot or the technical crew member to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.

Flight simulation training device = any type of device in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground, including flight simulators, flight training devices, flight and navigation procedures trainers and basic instrument training devices.

Flight simulation training device (FSTD) = a training device which is:

(a) in the case of aeroplanes, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD), a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT), or a basic instrument training device (BITD).

(b) in the case of helicopters, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD) or a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT).

System and equipment rating training = training designed to impart specific system/equipment knowledge and skills leading towards operational competence.

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) = Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL) = Commercial Pilot Licence

Instrument Rating (IR) = Instrument Rating

Light Aircraft Pilot Licence (LAPL) = Light Aircraft Pilot Licence

Private Pilot Licence (PPL) = Private Pilot Licence

Basic Instrument Rating (BIR) = Basic Instrument Rating

Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (MPL) = Multi-Crew Pilot Licence

PPL(A) = Private Pilot Licence — Aeroplanes

PPL(H) = Private Pilot Licence — Helicopters

PPL(As) = Private Pilot Licence — Airships

Complex aeroplane = An aeroplane that meets at least one of the following criteria: a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg, a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen, certification for operation with a minimum crew of two pilots, or equipped with one or more turbojet engines or more than one turboprop engine.

Complex helicopter = A helicopter that meets at least one of the following criteria: a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 3 175 kg, a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine, or certification for operation with a minimum crew of two pilots.

Rotorcraft = A power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft that depends principally for its support in flight on the lift generated by up to two rotors.

Vertical take-off and landing (VTOL)-capable aircraft (VCA) = A power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft, other than an aeroplane or rotorcraft, capable of performing vertical take-off and landing using lift and thrust units.

SEP aeroplane = A single-engine, single-pilot aeroplane for which no type rating is required, operated by a single thrust control and powered by a piston engine, an electric engine system, or a hybrid engine system.

SEP helicopter = A single-engine, single-pilot helicopter powered by a piston engine.

Cabin crew member = A qualified crew member, other than a flight crew or technical crew member, assigned by an operator to perform duties related to passenger safety and flight operations.

Aircrew = Flight crew and cabin crew.

PIC under supervision (PICUS) = Pilot-in-command under supervision.

Part-FCL licence = A flight crew licence that complies with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL).

Non-JAR-compliant licence = A pilot licence issued or recognised by a Member State under national legislation and not recommended for mutual recognition under the relevant JAR.

Credit = The recognition of prior experience or qualifications.

Credit report = A report on the basis of which prior experience or qualifications may be recognised.

Conversion report = A report on the basis of which a licence may be converted into a Part-FCL licence.

Automatically validated = Acceptance without formalities by an ICAO Contracting State of a flight crew licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1.

ICAO attachment = An attachment to an automatically validated flight crew licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, referenced in item XIII of the licence.

Approved Training Organisation (ATO) = An organisation approved to provide pilot training in accordance with Article 10a(1).

Declared Training Organisation (DTO) = An organisation entitled to provide pilot training based on a declaration made in accordance with Article 10a(1).

DTO training programme = A document describing in detail the training course provided by a DTO.

Principal place of business = The head office or registered office where the principal financial functions and operational control are exercised.

Basic Instrument Training Device (BITD) = A ground-based training device representing the student pilot station, used for procedural instrument flight training.

Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) = A pilot training device, including full flight simulators, flight training devices, flight and navigation procedures trainers, or BITDs, depending on aircraft category.

FSTD qualification = The level of technical capability of an FSTD as defined in the applicable certification specifications.

Qualification Test Guide (QTG) = A document demonstrating that an FSTD accurately represents the aircraft or aircraft class within prescribed limits.

Limitation = A condition placed on a medical certificate or cabin crew medical report that shall be complied with whilst exercising the privileges of the licence or cabin crew attestation.

Aero-medical examination = An inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation or any other means of investigation for determining the medical fitness to exercise the privileges of the licence or to carry out cabin crew safety duties.

Aero-medical assessment = The conclusion on the medical fitness of an applicant based on the evaluation required under Part-MED and any further examinations or medical tests as clinically indicated.

Significant = A degree of a medical condition, the effect of which would prevent the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence or the performance of cabin crew safety duties.

Applicant = A person applying for, or holding, a medical certificate who undergoes an aero-medical assessment of fitness to exercise the privileges of the licence or to carry out cabin crew safety duties.

Medical history = A narrative or record of past diseases, injuries, treatments or other medical facts, including previous unfit assessments or limitations, that are or may be relevant to an applicant’s current state of health and aero-medical fitness.

Licensing authority = The competent authority of the Member State that issued the licence, or to which a person applies for the issuance of a licence, or, where no licence application has yet been made, the authority determined in accordance with FCL.001.

Colour safe = The ability of an applicant to readily distinguish the colours used in air navigation and to correctly identify aviation coloured lights.

Helicopter emergency medical services (HEMS) operation = A HEMS flight as defined in point 61 of Annex I to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

Investigation = The assessment of a suspected pathological condition of an applicant by means of examinations and tests to verify the presence or absence of a medical condition.

Accredited medical conclusion = A conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the licensing authority, based on objective and non-discriminatory criteria, and, where appropriate, supported by an operational risk assessment.

Misuse of substances = The use of one or more psychoactive substances by aircrew in a way that constitutes a direct hazard to the user or others, or causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder.

Psychoactive substances = Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens and volatile solvents, excluding caffeine and tobacco.

Refractive error = The deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most ametropic meridian, measured by standard methods.

TML = Limited period of validity of the medical certificate

VDL = Valid only with correction for defective distant vision

VML = Valid only with correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision

VNL = Valid only with correction for defective near vision

CCL = Correction by means of contact lenses

VCL = Valid by day only

RXO = Specialist ophthalmological examination(s)

SIC = Specific medical examination(s)

HAL = Valid only when hearing aids are worn

APL = Valid only with approved prosthesis

AHL = Valid only with approved hand controls

OML = Valid only as, or with, a qualified co-pilot

OCL = Valid only as a qualified co-pilot

OSL = Valid only with a safety pilot and in aircraft with dual controls

OPL = Valid only without passengers

ORL = Valid only with a safety pilot if passengers are carried

OAL = Restricted to demonstrated aircraft type

SSL = Special restriction(s) as specified

TML = Time limitation. The validity of the medical certificate is limited to the period shown on the certificate, starting from the date of the medical examination.

VDL = Wear corrective lenses and carry a spare set of spectacles when exercising licence privileges.

VML = Wear multifocal spectacles correcting distant, intermediate and near vision and carry a spare set of spectacles.

VNL = Have corrective spectacles available for near vision and carry a spare set of spectacles.

CCL = Wear approved contact lenses correcting distant vision and carry a spare set of spectacles.

VCL = Valid by day only, applicable to certain holders with colour vision deficiency.

RXO = Specialist ophthalmological examinations are required for a significant medical reason.

SIC = Specific medical examinations are required and the medical assessor of the licensing authority must be contacted prior to revalidation or renewal.

HAL = Wear approved hearing aids while exercising licence privileges and carry spare batteries.

APL = Valid only with an approved prosthesis as demonstrated during medical flight or simulator testing.

AHL = Valid only with approved hand controls installed in the aircraft.

OML = Valid only as, or with, a qualified co-pilot for holders not meeting single-pilot medical requirements.

OCL = Restricted to the role of qualified co-pilot only.

OSL = Valid only with a safety pilot in aircraft with dual controls.

OPL = Valid only without passengers due to increased medical risk.

ORL = Valid only with a safety pilot if passengers are carried and in aircraft with dual controls.

OAL = Restricted to a demonstrated aircraft type due to medical or anatomical limitations.

SSL = Special restriction(s) individually specified to mitigate an increased level of flight safety risk.

Aeronautical data = a representation of aeronautical facts, concepts or instructions in a formalised manner suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.

Aeronautical database = a collection of aeronautical data organised and arranged as a structured data set, stored electronically on systems, which is valid for a dedicated period and may be updated.

Aeronautical information = information resulting from the assembly, analysis and formatting of aeronautical data.

Aeronautical information product = aeronautical data and aeronautical information provided either as digital data sets or as a standardised presentation in paper or electronic media. Aeronautical information products include:

— aeronautical information publication, including amendments and supplements.

— AIC.

— aeronautical charts.

— NOTAM.

— digital data sets.

 

Aeronautical information management (AIM) = the dynamic, integrated management of aeronautical information through the provision and exchange of quality-assured digital aeronautical data in collaboration with all parties.

Aeronautical information circular (AIC) = a notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the aeronautical information publication, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters.

Aeronautical information publication (AIP) = a publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.

AIP amendment = a permanent change to the information contained in the AIP.

AIP supplement = a temporary change to the information contained in the AIP, which is provided by means of special pages.

Aeronautical information regulation and control (AIRAC) =  a system aimed at advance notification, based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices.

Authoritative source =:

(a) a State authority: or

(b) an organisation formally recognised by the State authority to originate and/or publish data which meets the data quality requirements (DQRs) as specified by that State.

 

Assemble = a process of merging data from multiple sources into a database and establishing a baseline for subsequent processing.

Completeness = in relation to data, the degree of confidence that all data needed to support the intended use is provided.

Confidence level = the probability that the true value of a parameter is within a certain interval around the estimate of its value.

Data accuracy = a degree of conformance between the estimated or measured value and the true value.

Data integrity = a degree of assurance that aeronautical data and its value has not been lost or altered since the data origination or authorised amendment.

Data item = a single attribute of a complete data set, which is allocated a value that defines its current status.

Data origination = the creation of a new data item with its associated value, the modification of the value of an existing data item or the deletion of an existing data item.

Data product specification = a detailed description of a data set or a collection of data sets together with additional information that will enable it to be created, supplied to and used by another party.

Data quality = a degree or level of confidence that the provided data meets the user's data requirements in terms of accuracy, resolution, integrity (or equivalent assurance level), traceability, timeliness, completeness, and format.

Data quality requirements (DQRs) = a specification of the characteristics of data (i.e. accuracy, resolution, integrity (or equivalent assurance level), traceability, timeliness, completeness and format) to ensure that the data is compatible with its intended use.

Data set = an identifiable collection of data.

Format = in relation to data, a structure of data items, records and files arranged to meet standards, specifications or data quality requirements.

Integrity classification = in relation to aeronautical data, a classification based upon the potential risk resulting from the use of corrupted data, defining routine, essential and critical data.

Metadata = data about data.

Resolution = in relation to data, a number of units or digits to which a measured or calculated value is expressed and used.

Timeliness = in relation to data, the degree of confidence that the data is applicable to the period of its intended use.

Traceability = in relation to data, the degree to which a system or a data product can provide a record of the changes made to that product and thereby enable an audit trail to be followed from the end-user to the party originating data.

Validation = in relation to data, the process of ensuring that data meets the requirements for the specified application or intended use.

Verification = in relation to data, the evaluation of the output of an aeronautical data process to ensure correctness and consistency with respect to the inputs and applicable data standards, rules and conventions used in that process.

Tailored data = aeronautical data which is provided by the aircraft operator or DAT provider on the aircraft operator's behalf and produced for this aircraft operator for its intended operational use.

Aerodrome climatological summary = a concise summary of specified meteorological elements at an aerodrome, based on statistical data.

Aerodrome climatological table = a table providing statistical data on the observed occurrence of one or more meteorological elements at an aerodrome.

Aerodrome warning = information issued by an aerodrome meteorological office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of meteorological conditions which could adversely affect aircraft on the ground, including parked aircraft and the aerodrome facilities and services.

Aeronautical meteorological station = a station making observations and meteorological reports for use in air navigation.

Area forecast for low-level flights = a forecast of weather phenomena for a flight information region or sub-area thereof, issued to cover the layer below flight level 100 (or below flight level 150 in mountainous areas, or higher, where necessary).

Automatic observing system = an observing system that measures, derives and reports all required elements without human interaction.

Semi-automatic observing system = an observing system that allows the augmentation of measured elements and requires a human in the loop for issuing the appropriate reports.

Grid point data in digital form = computer-processed meteorological data for a set of regularly spaced points on a chart, for transmission from a meteorological computer to another computer in a code form suitable for automated use.

Gridded global forecasts = forecasts of expected values of meteorological elements on a global grid with a defined vertical and horizontal resolution.

Air traffic services unit = a generic term meaning variously air traffic control unit, flight information centre, aerodrome flight information service unit or air traffic services reporting office.

Area control centre (ACC) = a unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction.

Boundary = a lateral or vertical plane delineating the airspace in which an ATC unit provides air traffic services.

Control zone = a controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit.

Controlled aerodrome = an aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic.

Controlled airspace = an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification.

Controlled flight = any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance.

Clearance limit = the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.

Critical area = an area of defined dimensions extending around the ground equipment of a precision instrument approach within which the presence of vehicles or aircraft will cause unacceptable disturbance of the guidance signals.

Runway-in-use = the runway or runways that, at a particular time, are considered by the air traffic services unit to be the most suitable for use by the types of aircraft expected to land or take off at the aerodrome. Separate or multiple runways may be designated runway-in-use for arriving aircraft and departing aircraft.

Near-parallel runways = non-intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less.

Duty = any task that an air traffic controller is required to perform by the air traffic control service provider.

Duty period = a period which starts when an air traffic controller is required by the air traffic control service provider to report for or be available for or to commence duty and ends when the air traffic controller is free from duty.

Rest period = a continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to duty, during which an air traffic controller is free of all duties.

Break = a period of time within the duty period when an air traffic controller is not required to perform duties, for recuperation purposes.

Rostering system = the structure of duty and rest periods of air traffic controllers in accordance with legal and operational requirements.

Working position = the furniture and technical equipment at which a member of the air traffic services staff undertakes task associated with their job.

Cruise climb = an aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aeroplane mass decreases.

Cruising level = a level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.

Flight procedure = a set of predetermined flight manoeuvres intended to be followed by a pilot, published by electronic, printed or digital means, or both. Flight procedure is conducted either in accordance with instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR).

Flight procedure designer = a qualified person who performs design, documentation, validation, continuous maintenance, and periodic review of flight procedures.

Flight procedure design services = services for the design, documentation, validation, maintenance and periodic review of flight procedures necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of air navigation.

Glide path = a descent profile determined for vertical guidance during a final approach.

Navigation aid = a facility or system external to the aircraft, which generates electro-magnetic signals to be used by aircraft navigation systems for position determination or flight path guidance.

Conventional navigation route = an ATS route established by reference to ground navigation aids.

Area navigation (RNAV) = a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of them.

Functional system = a combination of procedures, human resources and equipment, including hardware and software, organised to perform a function within the context of ATM/ANS and other ATM network functions.

ATM/ANS equipment = ATM/ANS constituents as defined in Article 3(6) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, and ATM/ANS systems as defined in Article 3(7) of that Regulation, excluding airborne constituents, which are subject to Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 ( 2 ).

Certified aircraft application = a software application approved by the Agency as part of aircraft subject to Article 4 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.

Harmful interference = interference that prevents the performance requirements from being achieved.

Eligible interrogator code = any code among the II codes and the SI codes, except:

(a) II code 0.

(b) the interrogator code(s) reserved for military entities, including intergovernmental organisations and in particular North Atlantic Treaty Organisation management and allocation.

Interrogator code allocation plan = the most recently approved complete set of interrogator code allocations.

Implementation sequence = the time-bounded sequence of implementation of interrogator code allocations with which Mode S operators need to comply to avoid temporary interrogator code conflicts.

Warning = a message displayed at a working position when the automated coordination process has failed.

Coordination data = data of interest to operational staff in connection with the process of notification, coordination and transfer of flights, and with the process of civil-military coordination.

Coordination point (COP) = a point on or adjacent to the boundary used by the ATC units and referred to in coordination processes.

Estimate data = the coordination point, the estimated time of an aircraft and the expected flight level of the aircraft at the coordination point.

Notified unit = the ATC unit that has received the notification information.

Transfer of control point = a defined point located along the flight path of an aircraft, at which the responsibility for providing air traffic control service to the aircraft is transferred from one control unit or control position to the next.

Argument = a claim that is supported via inferences by a body of evidence.

Datum = any quantity or set of quantities that may serve as a reference or basis for the calculation of other quantities.

Feature = an abstraction of real world phenomena.

Feature attribute = a characteristic of a feature that has a name, a data type and a value domain associated with it.

Feature type = a class of real world phenomena with common properties, which forms the basic level of classification in a feature catalogue.

Position = in a geographical context, a set of coordinates (latitude and longitude) referenced to the mathematical reference ellipsoid, which define the position of a point on the surface of the Earth.

Identification = the situation which exists when the position indication of a particular aircraft is seen on a situation display and positively identified.

Situation display = an electronic display depicting the position and movement of aircraft and other information as required.

Traffic information = information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.

Air Operations (Regulation (EU) No 965/2012)

EUR-Lex: www.eur-lex.europa.eu

Document 02012R0965 — EN — 01.05.2025 — 030.002

 

Standardised European Rules of the Air (Regulation (EU) No 923/2012)

EUR-Lex: www.eur-lex.europa.eu

Document 02012R0923 — EN — 01.05.2025 — 012.001

 

Air Traffic Management/Air Navigation Services (ATM-ANS) — Provision of Services (Regulation (EU) 2017/373)

EUR-Lex: www.eur-lex.europa.eu

Document 02017R0373 — EN — 01.05.2025 — 010.001

 

Basic Regulation (Regulation (EU) 2018/1139)

EUR-Lex: www.eur-lex.europa.eu

Document 02018R1139 — EN — 25.05.2025 — 003.001

 

Aircrew (Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

EUR-Lex: www.eur-lex.europa.eu

Document  02011R1178 — EN — 04.08.2025 — 024.001

 

Certification Specifications and Acceptable Means of Compliance for Large Aeroplanes (CS-25)

www.easa.europa.eu